Got told today some one had bet on Tevez to score the winning goal against Man U in Carling cup game earlier in week at odds of 9/2. Now as score finished 2-1 to City and Tevez scored the goal it will obviously be paid out.

But, (and I don't bet on individual games often, may do 1st goalscorer, or to score at any time in a game so hence the question)

Would the person who had placed the bet won if the scoring went exactly as it did, but City scored a 3rd from ,let's say Bellamy, which goal would have been classed as the winning goal in that instance if the final score ends 3-1 to City.

Is it the Tevez goal, as technically it could be the winner as Man U don't score, so the 3rd goal is irrelevant(in a way) or is it the final goal that makes it 3-1. I know it seems a stupid question, but I've never encountered bookies offering odds on a "Winning goal" as such, I know you can bet someone to score with a result,( i.e Boyd to score 1st goal Pools to win 2-1 and get odds for that)

But if you bet a player to score the winning goal, what do the bookies class as the winning goal in say a 3-1, or even 8-0 victory ??????

I believe its the last goal scored

That's what I would have said but I still can't say bookies given odds like that , here's another example, But you state last goal SCORED, what happens if that's scored by the losing team. I'm not trying to be funny here, I've never seen a "Winning goal" bet

So Tevez to score winning goal Man C 2-0 up Giggs makes it 2-1 (hypothetical), so you've bet the winning scorer.......

another and this example say's why I can't see bookies giving odds on a winning goal
Tevez 9/2 to score winning goal

He scores 1st ( 9/2 would probably been about the price for that, as well as the price for the LAST )

Man U equalise City regain lead say from Bellamy

The person making the bet now has 9/2 on Tevez to score again, and this continues until final whistle, now if you bet Tevez to score AT ANY TIME those 9/2 odds are less, why would you be getting 9/2 for a goal at any time when that normally the case. And some will say you've bet Tevez to score the last goal in that case so 9/2 is correct, but the bookies offer 9/2 on him to score the last goal so why offer a price on him scoring winning goal, going back to the it's the last goal scored

Now we still have Man C 2-0 up (we change scorers slightly to show why I can't see it) It's Bellamy 1st then Tevez 2nd. Man U score the 3rd goal of game (Giggs). that bet to me is up Man C win 2-1

BUT now now bookies pay out

For Bellamy to score first

Giggs to score last

And 9/2 for Tevez to score any time in the game, when his odd to score at any time in game would be a lot less.

For example you can get 3/1Tevez to score 1st or last goal tomorrow but only EVENS to score at any time during the game.

Would be the last goal.

Tip for this weekend:

Spurs -1 at 5/6 is huge.

I dont think anywhere takes bets on a "winning goal" as for your reasoned stated, its open to interpretation. Plus iv never seen it on any website and i have accounts with them all.

The bet will have been "tevez to score the last goal" at a guess as there is no middle ground there?

Didnt see Chips post but as usual, he is right.

Its like a few seasons ago on rivals i think it was, someone reckoned they had put a bet on Pools first league fixture being against x (cant remember the exact team) at odds of 40/1.

Utter bullshit, sadly were bets are involved, bullshit is usually following closely behind.